Exfarmer
Member
- Location
- Bury St Edmunds
I am sorry but I totally disagree. To follow this advice could be putting you in a difficult position down the line If it was judged that you should have charged VAT and thus 16.66% of the sale price is due to the revenue.I do not believe that to be correct. It would be exempt. If the last owner was not VAT registered and did not claim it back, that's the consumer tax done and dusted.
remember even if you speak to the VAT office , they will not guarantee their advice is always correct and you certainly do not want to be fighting this out in the court